FINRA Updated SIE Exam Questions and Answers by celine

Step by Step Explanation:

DVP Process: Ensures that payment occurs simultaneously with the delivery of securities, mitigating counterparty risk. Cash payment is made before or at the time of delivery.

Incorrect Options:

A: The T+5 timeline is not standard for DVP.

C: Payment must occur at delivery, not after.

D: Settlement date agreements with the issuer are irrelevant for DVP.

References:

FINRA Guidelines on DVP/RVP Transactions: FINRA DVP Info.

A secondary market transaction occurs when securities are bought and sold between investors, typically on an exchange.

C is correctbecause securities purchased on a registered exchange are secondary market transactions.

Ais incorrect as open-end mutual fund shares are purchased directly from the issuer.

Brefers to the primary market.

Dis also incorrect as private placements occur in the primary market.

In a UTMA account, the minor is the legal owner of the account. The custodian (in this case, the attorney) manages the account until the minor reaches the age of majority specified by state law.

C is correctbecause the grandson (the minor) is the account’s legal owner.

Ais incorrect because the attorney is the custodian, not the owner.

Bis incorrect because the grandfather established the account but does not own it.

Dis incorrect because the parent does not have ownership unless explicitly named as the custodian.

Step by Step Explanation:

Rebalancing: Ensures that a portfolio remains aligned with its target allocation. Without rebalancing, outperforming assets can become overweighted, increasing exposure to specific risks.

Incorrect Options:

Inflation: Impacts purchasing power but isn’t tied to rebalancing.

Marketability: Refers to liquidity and isn’t linked to allocation models.

Interest Rate Risk: Relates to fixed-income investments and isn’t directly addressed by allocation models.

References:

SEC Investor Bulletin on Asset Allocation: SEC Asset Allocation.